This is an absolutely weird line of thinking, especially for a community like this. The level of rapamycin consumed by healthy non-obese men (free of enumerated diseases and metabolic dysfuntions) is zero. Therefore, the optimal level of rapamycin to be consumed is zero, right?
That is the logic being used here.
If we had data that showed that men on the high end of that natural range lived shorter lives than men on the low side, or vice versa, we might be able to say something. But the data presented tells us nothing about outcomes - in fact, the study was not trying to figure out what was optimal.
There was a post recently on menopausal women taking Testosterone. There are some interesting questions around that from a medical perspective. There are things to discuss as to what dose, if any, is optimal, under what circumstances.
But if we adopted the mindset in evidence here, we can jump straight to the conclusion that we surveyed a bunch of women free of enumerated diseases who are age 50 and above and their circulating levels of testosterone were really low and so we should never change that.
So bizzarre.